In the last post, I highlighted these four points.
1) In the OT, God’s covenants with his people were established with entire households.
2) In the OT, The children of God’s people were entitled, from birth, to the promises of the covenant.
3) In the OT, The children of God’s people were bound, from birth, to the duties of the covenant.
4) In the OT, fathers among God’s people were required to bring their children up in the covenant.
True to good Calvinist form, I want to note a fifth point that I believe might also be helpful in examining the present question:
5) In the Old Testament, outsiders who desired to enter into covenant with God brought their households along with them.
We see this, for example in Exodus, 12:48
:
If a stranger shall sojourn with you and would keep the Passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised. Then he may come near and keep it; he shall be as a native of the land. But no uncircumcised person shall eat of it.
When a gentile, an outsider, desired to partake of God’s Passover, that meal that symbolized the fulfillment of God's covenant promises, when he wanted to leave his alien status behind and become as a native of the land, he was required to take for himself the sign of God’s covenant, the sign of circumcision. But note that, just as Abraham did not enter into this covenant alone, so too, the proselyte was required to apply this sign to all the males of his household (Presumably, by the way, because ALL these would be partaking of the meal).
So, it would seem, this same principle that is established at the initial formation of God's covenant (that these covenants are household affairs), also applies to the later inclusion of outsiders. As I say, I believe this paradigm could be somewhat illuminating as we begin to consider the New Testament’s teaching on these same issues.
Considering, then, the five points highlighted above, when we put them all together, I don’t see how we can avoid the conclusion that, in the Old Testament, children born to parents in covenant with God were, by virtue of their very birth, themselves in covenant with God.
And here, of course, is the next step: What if we find that these same five things are true in the New Testament? What if the New Covenant is initiated with entire households, what if outsiders are brought in to this covenant with their households, what if children born into these households are treated as heirs of the promises and obligors to the commands of the covenant, what if we find that the same duty is laid upon fathers to bring their children up in the covenant? If all these things should be found true in the New Testament, how can we avoid the conclusion that, in the New Testament, just as in the Old, children born to parents in covenant with God are, by virtue of their very birth, themselves in covenant with God?